FAA Medical Standards and Disqualifying Conditions
To ensure the highest level of aviation safety, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) establishes comprehensive medical standards that pilots must meet before exercising the privileges of their airman certificates. These standards are codified in 14 CFR Part 67 and are designed to confirm that a pilot does not have a medical condition that could interfere with the safe operation of an aircraft.
Medical requirements vary slightly depending on the class of certificate sought:
● First-Class Medical Certificate: Required for Airline Transport Pilots (ATP) and subject to rigorous standards and renewal timelines.
● Second-Class Medical Certificate: Required for Commercial Pilots.
● Third-Class Medical Certificate: Required for Private Pilots and certain other operations.
Each certificate class carries different vision standards, cardiovascular screening requirements, and validity periods. For example, First-Class certificates require periodic electrocardiograms (ECGs) beginning at age 35 and annually after age 40, reflecting the increased responsibility associated with airline transport operations.
While some medical conditions are disqualifying, many can be managed through a Special Issuance Authorization, allowing pilots to maintain their certification under controlled circumstances.
Special Issuance Authorization: A discretionary FAA program that allows pilots with certain disqualifying medical conditions to obtain a medical certificate after demonstrating that their condition is stable, well-managed and unlikely to impair safe flight. It may involve additional medical evaluations, documentation, and periodic monitoring.
Below is a detailed breakdown of FAA medical standards and disqualifying conditions.
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FAA MedGuide: Check Medications Before You Fly
The FAA’s MedGuide is a useful reference for pilots and aviation medical professionals evaluating whether certain medications are permitted while performing flight or other safety-related duties. However, the FAA cautions that the MedGuide should not be used as the sole basis for an aeromedical decision. Both the medication and the underlying medical condition must be considered, and an individualized assessment may be necessary.
The FAA also notes that, in most cases, pilots should observe a 48-hour waiting period when starting a new medication before returning to safety-related duties. Longer or shorter wait times may apply depending on the medication and its potential effects. Pilots should also stop flying if they experience aeromedically concerning side effects and consult their treating physician and/or the FAA as appropriate.
Important: The current version of the MedGuide lists medications that are allowed. The FAA says future versions will add conditional and unacceptable medications, so pilots should check the current guidance rather than relying on an older reference.
The Office of Aerospace Medicine has just released MedGuide, a tool for pilots and air traffic controllers to determine what medications they can legally take. Click here to take a look: faa.gov/ame_guide/medguide
Medication and condition lists from FAA MedGuide
These lists show the medication and underlying-condition names in the FAA MedGuide tool’s dropdown menus. Search or browse the names below, then use the official FAA MedGuide tool for full information about a specific medication or condition.
Dropdown snapshot: October 6, 2026 · Pilot selectionUse the FAA MedGuide tool for full details (opens in a new tab)
Medications and preparationsBrowse brand names, generic names, and other entries 771 entries
The names below come from the FAA MedGuide tool’s Drug(s) dropdown. The list includes brand names, generic names, combinations, vaccines, supplements, and other preparations.
Showing 771 of 771 entries.
| A–Z | Drug or preparation |
|---|---|
| A | Abreva |
| A | Accuzyme |
| A | acetaminophen |
| A | acetaminophen + aspirin + caffeine |
| A | acetylsalicylic acid |
| A | acoltremon |
| A | Actigall |
| A | Activella |
| A | Actonel |
| A | Acular |
| A | Acuvail |
| A | acyclovir |
| A | Aczone |
| A | Adacel |
| A | adapalene |
| A | ademetionine |
| A | Advicor |
| A | Advil |
| A | Afluria |
| A | Afrin |
| A | Aklief |
| A | Alavert-D |
| A | Alaway |
| A | alcaftadine |
| A | alendronate |
| A | Alesse |
| A | alfuzosin |
| A | Allegra |
| A | Allegra-D |
| A | allergy shot |
| A | Alli |
| A | allopurinol |
| A | Aloprim |
| A | Altoprev |
| A | aluminum hydroxide + magnesium hydroxide + simethicone |
| A | Alyacen |
| A | amlexonox |
| A | amoxicillin |
| A | amoxicillin + clavulanate potassium |
| A | Amoxil |
| A | ampicillin |
| A | amylase |
| A | amylase + lipase + protease |
| A | amylase + lipase + protease + cellulase |
| A | amylase + lipase + protease + cellulase + hyoscyamine |
| A | Anaprox |
| A | Anbesol |
| A | Androderm |
| A | Androgel |
| A | Ansaid |
| A | Antagon |
| A | Anzupgo |
| A | Apriso |
| A | Apsolox |
| A | Apthasol |
| A | Aqua-Mephyton |
| A | Aranelle |
| A | Aredia |
| A | AREDS2 |
| A | Aristocort A |
| A | Arthrotec |
| A | artificial tears |
| A | Asacol |
| A | Ascriptin |
| A | asfotase alfa |
| A | aspirin |
| A | Astepro |
| A | atorvastatin |
| A | Atozet |
| A | Augmentin |
| A | Aurovela |
| A | Avenova |
| A | Aviane |
| A | Avodart |
| A | Axid |
| A | Ayr |
| A | azelaic acid |
| A | azelastine |
| A | azelastine + fluticasone |
| A | Azelex |
| A | azithromycin |
| B | bacillus calmette-guérin vaccine |
| B | Bactrim |
| B | baloxavir marboxil |
| B | balsalazide disodium |
| B | Balziva |
| B | Banophen |
| B | Baycol |
| B | bazedoxifene + conjugated equine estrogen |
| B | BCG vaccine |
| B | beclomethasone |
| B | Beconase AQ |
| B | bempedoic acid |
| B | bempedoic acid + ezetimibe |
| B | Benemid |
| B | benzocaine |
| B | bepotastine |
| B | Bepreve |
| B | Bi-est |
| B | Biaxin |
| B | Biest |
| B | Bijuva |
| B | biotin (vitamin B7) |
| B | bismuth subcitrate + metronidazole + tetracycline |
| B | bismuth subsalicylate |
| B | Blisovi |
| B | Boniva |
| B | Boostrix |
| B | Briellyn |
| B | bromfenac |
| B | BromSite |
| B | budesonide |
| C | calcipotriene + betamethasone |
| C | calcipotriol |
| C | calcitriol |
| C | calcium carbonate |
| C | calcium citrate |
| C | Cambia |
| C | Canasa |
| C | Capex |
| C | capsaicin |
| C | Carafate |
| C | carboxymethylcellulose |
| C | Carnitor |
| C | carotinoids |
| C | Cataflam |
| C | Ceclor |
| C | cefaclor |
| C | cefadroxil |
| C | cefdinir |
| C | Ceftin |
| C | cefTRIAXone |
| C | cefuroxime |
| C | CeleBREX |
| C | celecoxib |
| C | Cepacol |
| C | cephalexin |
| C | cerivastatin |
| C | cetirizine |
| C | cetrorelix |
| C | Cetrotide |
| C | chikungunya vaccine |
| C | chlorhexidine gluconate |
| C | Cholarest |
| C | cholecalciferol |
| C | cholestyramine |
| C | choline fenofibrate |
| C | chondroitin + glucosamine sulfate |
| C | ciclesonide |
| C | cidofovir |
| C | cimetidine |
| C | Citrucel |
| C | Clarinex |
| C | clarithromycin |
| C | Claritin |
| C | Claritin-D |
| C | Claroxan |
| C | clascoterone |
| C | Cleocin |
| C | clindamycin |
| C | Clinoril |
| C | clocortolone |
| C | Cloderm |
| C | coenzyme Q10 |
| C | Col-Probenecid |
| C | Colace |
| C | Colazal |
| C | Colbenemid |
| C | colchicine + probenecid |
| C | Colestid |
| C | colestipol |
| C | collagenase |
| C | ComBgen |
| C | CoQ10 |
| C | Cortenema |
| C | Covaryx |
| C | Creon |
| C | Crestor |
| C | crisaborole |
| C | cromolyn |
| C | cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) |
| C | Cyclafem |
| C | cycloSPORINE |
| C | Cytotec |
| D | Daflon |
| D | dapsone |
| D | Daptacel |
| D | Daypro |
| D | Deconex IR |
| D | delgocitinib |
| D | Delzicol |
| D | Demulen |
| D | Derma-Smoothe |
| D | desloratadine |
| D | Desonate |
| D | desonide |
| D | diclofenac |
| D | diclofenac + misoprostol |
| D | Didronel |
| D | Differin |
| D | Diflucan |
| D | diflunisal |
| D | diosmin + hesperidin |
| D | Dipentum |
| D | diphenhydramine |
| D | diphtheria + tetanus + pertussis vaccine |
| D | docosanol |
| D | docusate |
| D | Dolobid |
| D | Doryx |
| D | Dovonex |
| D | doxycycline |
| D | Dristan Spray |
| D | drospirenone |
| D | drospirenone + ethinyl estradiol |
| D | DTaP |
| D | Duavee |
| D | Duratuss |
| D | Duratuss GP |
| D | Duricef |
| D | dutasteride |
| D | dutasteride + tamsulosin |
| D | Dymista |
| E | E.E.S. 400 |
| E | Ebast |
| E | ebastine |
| E | Ecotrin |
| E | EEMT |
| E | Efidac |
| E | Efudex |
| E | elagolix + estradiol + norethindrone |
| E | Elestat |
| E | Elidel |
| E | Emverm |
| E | Engerix-B |
| E | Enstilar |
| E | EnteraGam |
| E | Entex |
| E | Entrophen |
| E | Enuclene |
| E | epinastine |
| E | ergocalciferol |
| E | EryPed 200 |
| E | Erythrocin Stearate |
| E | erythromycin |
| E | esterified estrogen |
| E | esterified estrogen + methyltestosterone |
| E | estradiol + estriol |
| E | estradiol + norethindrone |
| E | estradiol + progesterone |
| E | Estratest |
| E | estropipate |
| E | ethinyl estradiol + ethynodiol diacetate |
| E | ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel |
| E | ethinyl estradiol + norethindrone |
| E | ethyl alcohol (intranasal swab) |
| E | etidronate |
| E | etodolac |
| E | etonogestrel |
| E | Eucrisa |
| E | Evista |
| E | EvoTears |
| E | Excedrin |
| E | excipient |
| E | ezetimibe |
| E | ezetimibe + atorvastatin |
| E | ezetimibe + simvastatin |
| E | Ezetrol |
| F | Fabior |
| F | famciclovir |
| F | famotidine |
| F | Famvir |
| F | Feldene |
| F | fenofibrate |
| F | fenoprofen |
| F | Feosol |
| F | Fergon |
| F | ferrous gluconate |
| F | ferrous sulfate |
| F | fexofenadine |
| F | fexofenadine + pseudoephedrine |
| F | fezolinetant |
| F | Finacea |
| F | finasteride |
| F | Firvanq |
| F | Flagyl |
| F | flavocoxid |
| F | Flomax |
| F | Flonase |
| F | Floxin |
| F | Fluad |
| F | Fluarix |
| F | Flucelvax |
| F | fluconazole |
| F | FluLaval Quadrivalent |
| F | Flumadine |
| F | flunisolide |
| F | fluocinolone |
| F | fluorouracil |
| F | flurbiprofen |
| F | fluticasone |
| F | fluvastatin |
| F | Fluzone |
| F | folic acid (vitamin B9) |
| F | Follistim AQ |
| F | follitropin alfa (recombinant human follicle stimulating hormone) |
| F | follitropin beta |
| F | Fortesta |
| F | Fosamax |
| F | FSH+LH |
| F | Furadantin |
| F | Fyremadel |
| G | Gainextra |
| G | ganirelix |
| G | Gantanol |
| G | Gardasil 9 |
| G | Gas-X |
| G | gatifloxacin |
| G | gemfibrozil |
| G | Gemtesa |
| G | Generess |
| G | glucosamine sulfate |
| G | glycopyrrolate |
| G | Gonal-F |
| G | guaiFENesin |
| G | guaiFENesin + phenylephrine |
| G | guaiFENesin + pseudoephedrine |
| H | Habitrol |
| H | Havrix |
| H | HepA |
| H | hepatitis A vaccine |
| H | hepatitis B (HepB) vaccine |
| H | Heptral |
| H | hexylresorcinol |
| H | Hibiclens |
| H | Hiprex |
| H | human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) (recombinant) |
| H | Human papillomavirus 9-valent vaccine (9VHPV) |
| H | hydrocortisone |
| I | ibandronate |
| I | ibuprofen |
| I | icosapent ethyl (E-EPA) |
| I | Immunotherapy injections |
| I | inclisiran |
| I | Indocin |
| I | indomethacin |
| I | Inegy |
| I | Influenza vaccine |
| I | Ipol |
| I | ipratropium |
| I | Ipravent |
| I | iron polysaccharide |
| I | Iset |
| I | Itch Relief |
| I | ivermectin |
| I | Ixchiq (live-attenuated) |
| I | Ixiaro |
| J | Jalyn |
| J | Japanese ecephalitis vaccine |
| J | Jatenzo |
| J | Junel |
| K | Kaitlib |
| K | Kaopectate |
| K | Keflex |
| K | Kenacort |
| K | ketoconazole |
| K | ketoprofen |
| K | ketorolac |
| K | ketotifen |
| K | Klisyri |
| K | Klor-Con |
| K | Ku-Zyme |
| K | Kutrase |
| K | Kyzatrex |
| L | LamISIL |
| L | lapase |
| L | Larin |
| L | Lastacaft |
| L | Layolis |
| L | Leena |
| L | Leqvio |
| L | Lescol |
| L | levocarnitine |
| L | levonorgestrel IUD |
| L | Lialda |
| L | lidocaine |
| L | Lidoderm |
| L | lifitegrast |
| L | Limbrel |
| L | Lipanthyl |
| L | Lipitor |
| L | Lipofen |
| L | Litfulo |
| L | Litorva |
| L | Livalo |
| L | Lo Loestrin Fe |
| L | Lodine |
| L | Loestrin |
| L | Lofena |
| L | Lopid |
| L | loratadine |
| L | loratadine + pseudoephedrine |
| L | lotilaner |
| L | lovastatin |
| L | lovastatin + niacin |
| L | Lovaza |
| L | LubriTears |
| L | Lurbiro |
| L | lutein |
| M | M-M-R II |
| M | Maalox |
| M | Macrobid |
| M | Macrodantin |
| M | Mag-200 |
| M | Mag-Ox |
| M | magnesium |
| M | magnesium hydroxide |
| M | magnesium oxide |
| M | mandelamine |
| M | Maox |
| M | measles + mumps + rubella + varicella virus vaccine (MMRV) |
| M | measles + mumps + rubella vaccines (MMR) |
| M | mebendazole |
| M | mechlorethamine |
| M | meclofenamate |
| M | Meclomen |
| M | mefenamic acid |
| M | meloxicam |
| M | Menactra |
| M | Menest |
| M | meningococcal vaccine |
| M | Menopur |
| M | menotropins |
| M | MenQuadfi |
| M | Menveo |
| M | Mephyton |
| M | mesalamine |
| M | methoxsalen |
| M | methylcellulose |
| M | Metrocream |
| M | Metrogel |
| M | metroNIDAZOLE |
| M | Mevacor |
| M | Microgestin |
| M | Miebo |
| M | Milk of Magnesia |
| M | Minastrin |
| M | minerals |
| M | Minocin |
| M | minocycline |
| M | minoxidil |
| M | mirabegron |
| M | MiraLax |
| M | Mirena |
| M | misoprostol |
| M | Mobic |
| M | mometasone furoate |
| M | Motrin |
| M | Mucinex |
| M | Mucus-D |
| M | multivitamin |
| M | Muro |
| M | Myco-Triacet II |
| M | Myfembree |
| M | Myrbetriq |
| N | nabumetone |
| N | Nalfon |
| N | naphazoline + pheniramine |
| N | Naphcon-A |
| N | Naprelan |
| N | Naprosyn |
| N | naproxen |
| N | naproxen + esomeprazole |
| N | Nasacort |
| N | NasalCrom |
| N | Nasalide |
| N | Nasonex |
| N | Natesto |
| N | Nebusal |
| N | Necon |
| N | nepafenac |
| N | Nephro-Vite |
| N | Nevanac |
| N | Nexletol |
| N | Nexlizet |
| N | Nexplanon |
| N | niacin |
| N | Niacor |
| N | Niaspan |
| N | Nicoderm CQ Patch |
| N | Nicomide |
| N | nicotinamide |
| N | nicotine |
| N | Nicotrol NS |
| N | Niferex |
| N | Nilemdo |
| N | nitrofurantoin |
| N | nizatidine |
| N | Nizoral |
| N | Nordette |
| N | Nortrel |
| N | NovaTears |
| N | Noxafil |
| N | Nozin |
| N | Nylia |
| N | nystatin + triamcinolone |
| O | Ocufen |
| O | Ocuvite |
| O | ofloxacin |
| O | Ogen |
| O | olopatadine |
| O | olopatadine + mometasone |
| O | olsalazine |
| O | Omacor |
| O | omega-3-acid ethyl esters |
| O | omeprazole + amoxicillin + rifabutin |
| O | omeprazole + sodium bicarbonate |
| O | Omnaris |
| O | Omnicef |
| O | Opcon-A |
| O | OptiFlex-G |
| O | Optivar |
| O | Opzelura |
| O | Oralone |
| O | Oriahnn |
| O | orlistat |
| O | Ortho-Novum |
| O | Orudis |
| O | Oruvail |
| O | Os-Cal |
| O | oseltamivir |
| O | ospemifene |
| O | Osphena |
| O | Osteo Bi-Flex |
| O | Ovidrel |
| O | oxaprozin |
| O | Oxsoralen |
| O | oxymetazoline |
| O | oxytocin |
| P | pamidronate |
| P | Panadol |
| P | Pancreaze |
| P | pancrelipase |
| P | Pangestyme |
| P | papain + urea |
| P | paracetamol |
| P | Pataday |
| P | Patanase |
| P | Patanol |
| P | Pen-VK |
| P | penicillin |
| P | Pentasa |
| P | Pepcid |
| P | Pepto-Bismol |
| P | perfluorohexyloctane |
| P | Peridex |
| P | Periogard |
| P | Periostat |
| P | Pertzye |
| P | Phazyme |
| P | phenazopyridine |
| P | phytonadione |
| P | pilocarpine |
| P | pimecrolimus |
| P | Pin-Away |
| P | Pirmella |
| P | piroxicam |
| P | pitavastatin |
| P | Pitocin |
| P | pneumonia vaccine |
| P | Pneumovax 23 |
| P | policosanol |
| P | poliovirus vaccine |
| P | polyethylene glycol 3350 |
| P | Ponstel |
| P | posaconazole |
| P | potassium chloride |
| P | potassium citrate |
| P | Pravachol |
| P | pravastatin |
| P | Prevalite |
| P | Prevnar 13 |
| P | Primaspan |
| P | Primsol |
| P | Principen |
| P | Priorix |
| P | Probalan |
| P | probenecid |
| P | progesterone |
| P | Prolensa |
| P | Prometruim |
| P | Propecia |
| P | propylene glycol |
| P | ProQuad |
| P | Proscar |
| P | protease |
| P | Protopic |
| P | pseudoephedrine |
| P | Pylera |
| P | pyrantel pamoate |
| P | Pyridium |
| P | pyridoxine (vitamin B6) |
| Q | Qbrexza |
| Q | Qnasl |
| Q | Questran |
| Q | Qutenza |
| R | raloxifene |
| R | raNITIdine |
| R | Recombivax HB |
| R | Reeses Pinworm Medicine |
| R | Refresh |
| R | Relafen |
| R | Relenza |
| R | relugolix + estradiol + norethindrone |
| R | remibrutinib |
| R | Restasis |
| R | Retin-A |
| R | Rhapsido |
| R | Rhinocort |
| R | ribavirin |
| R | rimantadine |
| R | risedronate |
| R | Rocephin |
| R | roflumilast |
| R | Rogaine |
| R | Rohto |
| R | rosuvastatin |
| R | Rowasa |
| R | ruxolitinib |
| R | Ryaltris |
| S | s-adenosylmethionine |
| S | sacrosidase |
| S | Salagen |
| S | salicylsalicylic acid |
| S | Salsalate |
| S | SAMe |
| S | Santyl |
| S | sarecycline |
| S | Septra |
| S | serum derived bovine immunoglobulin/protein isolate |
| S | Seysara |
| S | Sight Care |
| S | simethicone |
| S | simvastatin |
| S | Sklice |
| S | Slynd |
| S | sodium chloride preparations |
| S | sodium hypochlorite |
| S | Sofdra |
| S | sofpironium |
| S | Soolantra |
| S | Sortis |
| S | Stamaril |
| S | Strensiq |
| S | subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT) |
| S | Sucraid |
| S | sucralfate |
| S | Sudafed |
| S | sulfamethoxazole |
| S | sulindac |
| S | Synalar |
| S | Systane |
| T | Taclonex |
| T | tacrolimus |
| T | Tagamet |
| T | Talicia |
| T | Tamiflu |
| T | tamsulosin |
| T | tapinarof |
| T | Taurine |
| T | tazarotene |
| T | Tazorac |
| T | Tequin |
| T | terbinafine |
| T | Testim |
| T | testosterone |
| T | tetrahydrozoline |
| T | Theragran-M |
| T | thiamine (vitamin B1) |
| T | Tilia |
| T | Tindamax |
| T | tinidazole |
| T | tirbanibulin |
| T | Tlando |
| T | tobramycin |
| T | Tobrex |
| T | Todolac |
| T | Tolectin |
| T | tolmetin |
| T | tretinoin |
| T | triamcinolone |
| T | Tricor |
| T | Triderm |
| T | trifarotene |
| T | trimethoprim |
| T | trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole |
| T | Trimox |
| T | Tryptyr |
| T | Tylenol |
| T | tyloxapol |
| T | Typhim Vi |
| T | typhoid vaccine (injection, oral) |
| T | Tyrvaya |
| U | Ultresa |
| U | Upneeq |
| U | Urocit-K |
| U | Uroxatral |
| U | ursodiol |
| U | Uvadex |
| V | valacyclovir |
| V | Valchlor |
| V | Valtrex |
| V | Vancocin |
| V | vancomycin |
| V | Vaqta |
| V | varenicline |
| V | Vascepa |
| V | Vectical |
| V | Veozah |
| V | Veramyst |
| V | Vermox |
| V | vibegron |
| V | Vibramycin |
| V | Vimkunya (recombinant) |
| V | Vimovo |
| V | Viokace |
| V | Virazole |
| V | Visine |
| V | Visine AC |
| V | Visutein |
| V | vitamin C |
| V | Vitamin D2 |
| V | Vitamin D3 |
| V | Vivotif |
| V | Vogelxo |
| V | Voltaren |
| V | vonoprazan |
| V | Voquezna |
| V | Vtama |
| V | Vyfemla |
| V | Vytorin |
| W | Winlevi |
| W | Wymzya |
| W | Wynzora |
| X | Xdemvy |
| X | Xenical |
| X | Xhance |
| X | Xiidra |
| X | Xofluza |
| Y | Yasmin |
| Y | Yaz |
| Y | yellow fever vaccine |
| Y | YF-VAX |
| Z | Zaditor |
| Z | zanamivir |
| Z | Zantac |
| Z | zeaxanthin |
| Z | Zegerid |
| Z | Zenpep |
| Z | Zerviate |
| Z | Zetia |
| Z | Zetonna |
| Z | zinc |
| Z | Zipsor |
| Z | Zithromax |
| Z | Zocor |
| Z | Zorvolex |
| Z | Zoryve |
| Z | Zovirax |
| Z | Zyloprim |
| Z | Zymaxid |
No matching entries in this recorded list. Try another term or reset the filters. For current guidance, check the FAA MedGuide (opens in a new tab).
Scroll within the table to browse more names.
Underlying conditions and usesEntries shown with User set to Pilot 134 entries
The names below come from the FAA MedGuide tool’s Underlying Condition(s) dropdown with User set to Pilot. The menu also includes treatment purposes and uses, such as immunization and supplementation. Names retain the FAA’s displayed spellings.
Showing 134 of 134 entries.
| A–Z | Underlying condition or use |
|---|---|
| A | Acne |
| A | Actinic |
| A | Allergic conjunctivitis |
| A | Allergic rhinitis |
| A | Allergies |
| A | Alopecia (Hair loss) |
| A | Amenorrhea |
| A | Anemia |
| A | Anesthesia |
| A | Antacid |
| A | Antioxidant |
| A | Antiplatelet effects |
| A | Antiseptic |
| A | Arthritis |
| B | Bacterial infections |
| B | Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) |
| B | Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH) |
| B | Blepharoptosis |
| C | Canker sores (mouth ulcerations) |
| C | Clostridioides difficile infection |
| C | Cold sores |
| C | Cold symptoms |
| C | Congenital sucraseisomaltase deficiency (CSID) |
| C | Congestion |
| C | Conjunctivitis |
| C | Constipation |
| C | Contraception |
| C | Cutaneous candidiasis |
| C | Cutaneous Tcell Lymphoma |
| D | Dermatitis (Allergic/Atopic) |
| D | Diarrhea |
| D | Dry eye disease |
| D | Dyslipidemia |
| D | Dysmenorrhea |
| D | Dyspareunia |
| E | Eczema |
| E | Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency |
| E | Expectorant |
| E | Eye redness |
| F | Fever |
| F | Fungal infections |
| G | Gallstone dissolution |
| G | Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) |
| G | Gastrointestinal conditions |
| G | Gingivitis |
| G | Gout |
| H | H. pylori infection |
| H | Hemorrhoids |
| H | Herpes |
| H | Herpes zoster |
| H | Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) |
| H | Hypercalcemia of malignancy |
| H | Hypercholesterolemia |
| H | Hyperhidrosis |
| H | Hyperlipidemia |
| H | Hypertriglyceridemia |
| H | Hyperuricemia |
| H | Hypoestrogenism |
| H | Hypogonadism |
| H | HYPOphosphatasia |
| I | Immunization |
| I | Indigestion |
| I | Infertility |
| I | Inflammatory conditions |
| I | Influenza |
| I | Intestinal nematode infection |
| I | Intraoperative miosis |
| I | Invitro fertilization (IVF) |
| I | Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) |
| I | Itching |
| K | Keratoconjunctivitis sicca |
| L | Labor |
| L | Lice |
| L | Liver disorders |
| L | Low – testosterone (Low T) |
| M | Malaria prophylaxis |
| M | Menopause |
| M | Menstrual bleeding |
| M | Migraine treatment |
| N | Nasal polyps |
| N | Necrotic tissue debridement |
| N | Neuropathic pain |
| N | Nosebleeds (Epistaxis) |
| N | NSAIDinduced gastric ulcers |
| O | Obstetrical condition |
| O | Osteoarthritis |
| O | Osteoporosis |
| O | Otitis media |
| O | Overactive Bladder (OAB) |
| P | Paget disease |
| P | Pain management |
| P | Parasitic infections |
| P | Pellagra |
| P | Planters wart |
| P | Plaque psoriasis |
| P | Polycystic ovarian disease (PCOS) |
| P | Postherpetic neuralgia (PHN) |
| P | Postoperative surgery |
| P | Proteolytic needs |
| P | Psoriasis |
| R | Respiratory syncytial virus |
| R | Restores moisture |
| R | Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) |
| R | Rosacea |
| S | Sexual enhancement |
| S | Sjogren's syndrome |
| S | Skin conditions |
| S | Smoking cessation |
| S | Solar keratosis |
| S | Spermatogenesis |
| S | Stabilize cell membranes |
| S | Stomach ulcers |
| S | Stroke |
| S | Supplement |
| T | Testosterone replacement |
| T | Thrombocytopenia |
| T | Tuberculosis (TB) |
| T | Typhoid prevention |
| U | Ulcer |
| U | Ulcerative Colitis (UC) |
| U | Ulcerative proctitis |
| U | Urinary alkalinizer |
| U | Urinary tract infections (UTI) |
| U | Urticaria |
| V | Vaginal dryness |
| V | Varicella |
| V | Vasomotor symptoms |
| V | Vein diseases |
| V | Viral infection |
| V | Vitiligo |
| W | Weight loss (Obesity) |
| W | Wound healing |
| W | Wrinkles |
| X | Xerostomia (dry mouth) |
No matching entries in this recorded list. Try another term or reset the filters. For current guidance, check the FAA MedGuide (opens in a new tab).
Scroll within the table to browse more names.
For further information, use the official FAA MedGuide tool. These tables list dropdown names only. Open the FAA MedGuide tool (opens in a new tab) for guidance about a specific medication or underlying condition, including restrictions, wait times, and other requirements. A listed name does not establish individual clearance to fly. For FAA Air Traffic Control Specialist guidance, select FAA ATCS in the official tool.
The FAA MedGuide is a reference tool and does not replace an individualized aeromedical evaluation. View the current FAA MedGuide for the latest information.
FAA Disqualifying Medical Conditions
(Ordered per 14 CFR Part 67)
Under 14 CFR Part 67, the FAA identifies certain medical conditions as specifically disqualifying for First-, Second- and Third-Class medical certification. When an applicant has a history of one of the conditions listed below, an AME must deny or defer the application to the FAA for further review. Importantly, “specifically disqualifying” does not always mean permanently disqualified. Many of these conditions may still qualify for certification through the FAA’s Special Issuance process if the applicant can demonstrate medical stability and safe functional capacity.
FAA Disqualifying Medical Conditions
The FAA requires denial or deferral of a medical certificate for applicants with a history of the following conditions:
- Diabetes mellitus requiring insulin or hypoglycemic medications
- Angina pectoris
- Coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, has been symptomatic or clinically significant
- Myocardial infarction
- Cardiac valve replacement
- Permanent cardiac pacemaker
- Heart replacement
- Psychosis
- Bipolar disorder
- Personality disorder that is severe enough to have repeatedly manifested itself by overt acts
- Substance dependence
- Substance abuse
- Epilepsy
- Disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory explanation of cause
- Transient loss of control of nervous system functions without satisfactory explanation of cause
Important clarification: These conditions require denial or deferral at the AME level under federal regulation, but many are eligible for Special Issuance review and are not permanently disqualifying.
Special Issuance Authorization & Waivers
Many of these conditions do not result in permanent disqualification. Pilots with a “disqualifying condition” may be granted a medical certificate through the discretionary issuance process:
Special Issuance Authorization: This discretionary issuance allows a pilot with a disqualifying condition to obtain certification after a thorough evaluation. It requires:
- Medical assessments
- Submission of health records
- Demonstration that the condition is stable and well-managed
- Ongoing periodic monitoring
These special issuances are commonly granted for:
- Coronary artery disease
- Insulin-treated diabetes
- Certain psychiatric conditions (See Mental Health section)
- Treated hypertension
Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA): A waiver issued for static, non-progressive conditions (such as limb amputation or vision loss in one eye). It remains valid as long as the condition doesn’t worsen.
Mental Health and FAA Medical Certification
Mental health matters and the FAA recognizes that pilots are human. Experiencing stress, anxiety or depression does not automatically end an aviation career. When we refer to “certain psychiatric conditions” in the FAA context, we’re generally talking about mental health diagnoses that are not automatically disqualifying but that require review, documentation and sometimes Special Issuance consideration under 14 CFR Part 67. What matters most to the FAA is whether a condition is stable, well-managed and unlikely to interfere with safe flight operations.
Under 14 CFR Part 67, certain psychiatric diagnoses are classified as specifically disqualifying. However, many other mental health conditions may still qualify for certification through careful evaluation and, when necessary, the Special Issuance process.
Conditions That May Qualify for Certification
The FAA may consider certification (often with additional documentation or monitoring) for pilots with:
- Major Depressive Disorder
- Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
- Panic Disorder
- Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
- Adjustment Disorders
- History of ADHD (depending on current functioning and testing results)
Each case is evaluated individually. The FAA looks at current symptoms, treatment history, medication use and overall functioning (not just the diagnosis itself).
SSRI Use and FAA Approval
The FAA permits limited use of certain antidepressants under a structured review protocol. Approval requires a detailed psychiatric evaluation, documentation of stability and ongoing monitoring. Pilots must undergo a thorough review process three months after beginning a stable dose of medication and will require continued monitoring following special issuance.
What the FAA Is Really Assessing
The FAA’s primary concern is aviation safety. Evaluators assess whether a condition poses risk due to:
- Impaired judgment
- Suicidal ideation or behavior
- Cognitive dysfunction
- Medication side effects
- Risk of sudden or unpredictable impairment
A past diagnosis does not automatically disqualify a pilot. The key factors are stability, treatment compliance and demonstrated safe functioning.
Protecting Your Medical Certificate
Mental health disclosures can be complex and highly technical. Incomplete records, poorly timed medication changes or missteps in reporting can result in deferral or denial.
If you are navigating a mental health diagnosis, considering treatment or responding to an FAA inquiry, early guidance from an experienced AME and knowledgeable aviation counsel can significantly improve your outcome.
With the right strategy and documentation, many pilots successfully maintain (or regain) their FAA medical certification.
FAA Medical Certification Standards by Certificate Class
The table below summarizes key FAA medical certification standards for First-Class, Second-Class, and Third-Class medical certificates based primarily on 14 CFR Part 67 and FAA medical certification guidance used by Aviation Medical Examiners (AMEs).
| Medical Requirement | First-Class (Airline Transport Pilot) | Second-Class (Commercial Pilot) | Third-Class (Private Pilot) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Distant Vision | 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or without correction. | 20/20 or better in each eye separately, with or without correction. | 20/40 or better in each eye separately, with or without correction. |
| Near Vision | 20/40 or better in each eye separately (Snellen equivalent), with or without correction, as measured at 16 inches. | 20/40 or better in each eye separately (Snellen equivalent), with or without correction, as measured at 16 inches. | 20/40 or better in each eye separately (Snellen equivalent), with or without correction, as measured at 16 inches. |
| Intermediate Vision | 20/40 or better in each eye separately (Snellen equivalent), with or without correction at age 50 and over, as measured at 32 inches. | 20/40 or better in each eye separately (Snellen equivalent), with or without correction at age 50 and over, as measured at 32 inches. | No requirement. |
| Color Vision | Must be able to perceive those colors necessary for safe performance of airman duties. | Must be able to perceive those colors necessary for safe performance of airman duties. | Must be able to perceive those colors necessary for safe performance of airman duties. |
| Hearing | Must demonstrate hearing of an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears at 6 feet, with the back turned to the examiner, or pass one of the audiometric tests. | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Audiometric Test | Speech discrimination test: at least 70% reception in one ear at no greater than 65 dB. | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Pure Tone Test | Unaided, with thresholds no worse than: Better Ear: 35 dB (500 Hz), 30 dB (1000 Hz), 30 dB (2000 Hz), 40 dB (3000 Hz) Worst Ear: 35 dB (500 Hz), 50 dB (1000 Hz), 50 dB (2000 Hz), 60 dB (3000 Hz) | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Ear Conditions | No ear disease or condition that could cause vertigo or a disturbance of speech or equilibrium. | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Pulse | Not disqualifying by itself; used to assess cardiac health. | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Blood Pressure | No specific limits stated, but guideline maximum is 155/95. | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Electrocardiogram (ECG) | Required annually after age 40, and at age 35. | Not routinely required. | Not routinely required. |
| Mental Health | No history of psychosis, bipolar disorder, or severe personality disorders. | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Substance Dependence/Abuse | A history of substance dependence is disqualifying unless recovery with sustained abstinence for at least 2 years is documented. Substance abuse within the past 2 years is also disqualifying. Includes alcohol, PCP, sedatives, anxiolytics, marijuana, cocaine, opioids, amphetamines, hallucinogens, and other psychoactive drugs. | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
| Disqualifying Conditions | The FAA will deny or defer certification for the following conditions: 1. Diabetes requiring hypoglycemic medication 2. Angina pectoris 3. Coronary heart disease (treated or symptomatic) 4. Myocardial infarction 5. Cardiac valve replacement 6. Permanent cardiac pacemaker 7. Heart replacement 8. Psychosis 9. Bipolar disorder 10. Severe personality disorder with repeated manifestations 11. Substance dependence 12. Substance abuse 13. Epilepsy 14. Unexplained disturbances of consciousness 15. Transient loss of nervous system control | Same as First-Class. | Same as First-Class. |
This table provides an overview of FAA medical standards for different pilot certification classes. Applicants should consult an aviation attorney and/or an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) for case-specific evaluations.
Sources: 14 CFR Part 67 (Medical Standards and Certification) and FAA Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners.
Applicants should consult an aviation attorney and/or an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) for case-specific evaluations.
FAA Medical Standards and Disqualifying Conditions Frequently asked questions
Can I obtain an FAA medical certificate if I have a disqualifying condition?
Yes. Many pilots with disqualifying conditions can qualify through a Special Issuance Authorization. This process requires thorough medical documentation showing that your condition is stable, well-managed and unlikely to impair safe flight operations. Each case is reviewed individually and the FAA may impose monitoring requirements or time-limited certificates.
What is a Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA)?
A SODA is a waiver that allows a pilot to continue flying with certain stable, non-progressive medical conditions. Examples include the loss of a limb, vision impairment in one eye or certain hearing deficits. Unlike a Special Issuance, a SODA typically does not require repeated medical re-evaluation as long as the condition remains unchanged.
How do I apply for a Special Issuance Authorization?
To apply, consult an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) and/or an aviation attorney familiar with FAA regulations. You will need to submit detailed medical records, test results and specialist evaluations. The FAA will then review your file and determine whether certification can be issued under controlled conditions.
What medical conditions are temporarily disqualifying?
Temporary disqualifications include conditions that are acute, short-term or currently unstable, such as:
- Recent infections
- Anemia or blood disorders
- Recovery from surgery or hospitalization
- Fluctuating blood pressure or blood sugar
- Short-term psychiatric episodes
Once resolved and documented as stable, these conditions generally no longer prevent certification.
Where can I find more details?
Visit the FAA’s Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners and 14 CFR Part 67 provide comprehensive, up-to-date guidance on medical standards, disqualifying conditions and certification requirements. AMEs can also provide personalized guidance based on your situation.
Can mental health conditions affect my FAA medical certificate?
Yes. Certain psychiatric conditions are specifically disqualifying (psychosis, bipolar disorder, severe personality disorder), but many conditions—such as depression, anxiety, PTSD and ADHD—may qualify if stable and well-managed. The FAA focuses on current functioning, medication stability and aviation safety risk.
Does medication automatically disqualify me from FAA certification?
Not necessarily. The FAA reviews medication on a case-by-case basis, considering side effects, impact on cognition and risk of sudden incapacitation. Some medications, like certain SSRIs or cardiovascular drugs, are acceptable under Special Issuance review. Always disclose your medications to your AME.
How long does a Special Issuance medical certificate last?
The FAA issues Special Issuance Authorizations and medical certificates for limited periods. Special Issuance Authorizations are often valid for anywhere from 6 months to 5 years, depending on the condition and risk assessment. The medical certificate or certificates issued under the Special Issuance Authorization will generally be valid as long as provided by 14 CFR § 61.23(d) unless otherwise noted by the Special Issuance Authorization. Pilots must submit periodic updates and may need ongoing evaluations to maintain certification.
Will the FAA permanently revoke my certificate if I have a disqualifying condition?
Not automatically. Many pilots regain or maintain certification through Special Issuance or SODA waivers once their condition is documented as stable and manageable. Early consultation with an AME or aviation attorney may greatly improve your chances.
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